Posted by Clark Bates
May 24, 2016
As we continue in this discussion of
New Testament authorship, our third destination is what is commonly
known as the “first gospel” or the “Gospel according to
Matthew.” The order in which these articles are being presented,
haphazard as it may seem, is not without intent. Having begun with John
, (a gospel that stands apart from the three Synoptic Gospels in
content and theology), attention was then turned to Mark. The reason
being that while Mark is the second gospel in order of canonical
inclusion, it is considered by most to be the earliest written
record, and the source upon which the other Synoptic Gospels draw
some of their information. So, having established the most likely
authors of the previous gospels, attention will now be turned to the
gospel that followed Mark in dating, Matthew.
While it has been the format of the
earlier articles to begin with the internal evidence of gospel
authorship and then to move into external evidence that supports the
text, the discussion on Matthew will differ. The reason for this
article beginning with external evidence and moving inward is that a
larger portion of authorial suggestion comes from outlying tradition.
It seems best, then, to begin with the weightier evidence before
analyzing it with the text itself.
External Evidence
Just as could be said of most of the
gospels, the Gospel according to Matthew is formally anonymous. The
commonly attributed titles by which we now know the fourfold Gospel
seem to have originated around AD
125 but this is little more than an educated guess. As was briefly
noted in the previous discussion on Mark's gospel, this educated
guess has been called into question. Given Hengel's detailed
examination of book distribution in the ancient world, evidence has
surfaced that titles of some sort would have been necessary for
proper identification from other works.1
Implicit support for this position is
found within Tertullian's criticism of the heretic Marcion for
publishing his own gospel
without the author's name.
As part of his rebuke,
Tertullian writes, “a work ought not to be recognized, which holds
not its head erect. . . which gives no promise of credibility from
the fullness of its title and the just profession of its author.”2
Writing in the mid-second century, Tertullian's statement regarding
the need for titles, falls within the time frame of earlier
speculation, but it seems unlikely that such a view could have become
prolific within only a few decades. Hengel's main thesis on the
subject is that it would be inconceivable that the gospels could
circulate anonymously for up to sixty years, and then in the second
century suddenly display unanimous attribution to certain authors.
If the authors had been largely anonymous prior to the second
century, one would expect there to be more variation within the
following attributions; especially given that this was the case with
several second-century apocryphal gospels.3
“a work ought not to be recognized, which holds not its head erect. . . which gives no promise of credibility from the fullness of its title and the just profession of its author.”
In
detraction to this view, it is often stated that the Greek kata
(according to) that precedes
Matthew in the title of the gospel need not indicate authorship but
merely conformity to a certain style (i.e. The Gospel According to
the Hebrews, The Gospel According to the Egyptians). In fact, this
is its more common usage in Greek literature of the time.4
Hengel agrees with this but also notes a telling analogy: In the
Greek fathers, the one
Old Testament is referred to as “according to the Seventy” where
the prepositional expression is used to introduce the person
responsible for producing the version concerned. Hengel argues that
the one Gospel
circulated in the same way with four distinct forms (i.e. “according
to Mark”, “according to Matthew” etc.).5
The only existing statement of Papias (AD
70-163)
regarding this gospel comes to us through the writings of Eusebius in
the fourth century in fragmented form and is notoriously difficult to
translate.6
It reads, “Matthew (composed, compiled, or arranged in orderly
form), (the sayings, or gospel) in (the Hebrew [Aramaic] language or
style), and each (interpreted, translated, or transmitted) them as
best he could.”7
While
this excerpt contains obvious problems, certain textual data within
the first Gospel can be illuminating. To begin with, the early
church interpreted this text to say that Matthew originally wrote the
gospel in Hebrew or Aramaic which was later translated into Greek.
However, the Old Testament quotations contained within the text lack
Aramiac rendering and read more as from an author writing in Greek
but knowledgeable of Semitic languages. Given that Matthew's
dependence on the Gospel of Mark is widely maintained, the verbal
connections between the two make Aramaic or Hebrew origins less
likely. Finally, the existence of Semitisms throughout the first
Gospel do not allow for an average translation form Greek. These
Semitic enhancements surround the sayings of Jesus and are used for
effect by a writer who is demonstrably capable of writing Hellenistic
Greek.8
If this is the case, Papias' claim that Matthew wrote in Hebrew
becomes questionable, and while some have argued that this discredits
the entirety of Papias' statement there is no need for such
extremism, as author's have often been known to err in one point
without erring in all.9
Internal
Evidence
Evidence from within the gospel itself provides some leading information regarding authorship. Only in Matthew do we find the apostle referred to as, “Matthew the tax collector” (Matt. 10:30). In Mark 2:14 and Luke 5:27, the man whom Jesus calls from his role as a tax collector is identified as “Levi”. However, in the same parallel passage in Matthew (9:9-13) the tax collector is named “Matthew”. While some have sought to create an alternative proposal, the most economical explanation is that Matthew is to be identified as the same tax collector named Levi elsewhere. That this tax collector is the apostle can be confirmed through the apostolic lists of of the Synoptic Gospels (Matt. 10:2-4; Mark 3:16-18; Luke 6:13-16).
If
Matthew is the aforementioned tax collector, this makes sense of
several details within the text. In several instances, recorded
exclusively by the first gospel, financial depictions are discussed
(17:24-27; 18:23-35; 20:1-16, et. al.). This does not require
insider information, so to speak, but does become curious when
contained solely within the text of a gospel traditionally held to
have been written by a financial dealer. A tax collector would need
to be fluent in both Greek and Aramaic, coinciding with what has
previously been discussed regarding the textual transmissions of
Semitisms in Greek. In addition, The gospel's connection to Mark
could be viewed as perfectly reasonable, given that plagiarism bore
no negative connotations prior to the invention of the printing
press, and even more so if the underlying message in Mark comes from
Peter, as is popularly believed. It would be difficult to find a
reason why Matthew would not utilize the writings of a fellow apostle
in such an instance.
While
it is argued that Matthew's Christology is far too advanced for the
time of its writing, thereby disproving apostolic authorship in favor
of a late date authorship, a high Christology demonstrably developed
early as seen in the Christ hymns of the Pauline writings (Phil.
2:5-11: Col. 1:15-20). Also, it is clearly distinguished within the
first gospel what the apostles thought of Christ in the
moment opposed to what the
author knew of Christ at the time of his writing.10
Such evidence, rather than disputing apostolic authorship might
better be seen as proving it, given that only those closest to the
Lord could preserve such clear distinctions.
Matthew's
gospel relates the opposition to Jesus by the Pharisees and Sadducees
as a united front, but rather than confusing the two faculties, the
author distinguishes them when needed (22:23-33). This should not be
seen as ignorance of Jewish customs but a clear effort on the part of
the author to depict the unified opposition of the “world” to the
things of Christ. Matthew also bears distinction in its attempt to
demonstrate the Jewish nature of Jesus mission (15:24; 10:5-6) and
the universal call to the world as its result (28:18-20). Taken
alongside the long-standing tradition of Matthew's Hebrew emphasis
this corresponds nicely with an author seeking to reach the nation of
Israel while not alienating the Hellenistic world.
Conclusion
What
does it matter to identify the author of the first gospel with the
apostle Matthew? In some cases it doesn't matter much at all. The
message of the gospel stands upon the truth of its claims, not on the
identity of its author. However, how one perceives the authorship of
this gospel (and others) changes the manner in which one views of the
early church and the remainder of the New Testament. To close with
an extended quote from D.A. Carson:
“Strong
commitments to the view that this gospel reflects late traditions
that cannot possibly be tied directly to any apostle inevitably casts
a hermeneutical shadow on how the evidence, including the external
evidence, will be evaluated. Conversely, the judgment that in all
probability the apostle Matthew was responsible for the work casts a
hermeneutical shadow on the reconstruction of early church history.
The web of interlocking judgments soon affects how one weighs
evidence in other parts of the New Testament.”11
1Martin
Hengel, Studies in the Gospel of Mark,
(Philadelphia: Fortress Press, 1985), 64-84.
2Tertullian,
Against Marcion, 4.2.
3D.A.
Carson and Douglas J. Moo, An Introduction to the New Testament,
(Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 2004), 141.
4Alfred
Plummer, An Exegetical Commentary on the Gospel According ot
Matthew (London: Robert Stott,
1909), vii.
5Hengel,
Mark, 83.
6If
you've read the two earlier articles regarding the authorship of
John and Mark, you will recall that Eusebius contains the writings
of Papias and Irenaeus regarding early apostolic authorship of each
gospel.
7This
translation comes from Eusebius, Ecclesiastical History, Vol. 1,
transl. Kirsopp Lake (Cambridge: Harvard University Press, 1926).
The areas in parentheses indicate Greek word usage that remains
ambiguous between the three listed options.
8C.F.D.
Moule, “St. Matthew's Gospel: Some Neglected Features,” SE2
(1964). A Semitism is a saying in the Greek New Testament that can
only be made sensible by appealing to a Semitic underlay or Hebrew
idiom.
9It
is possible that Papias was led astray by a common error. Carson
notes that Epiphanes claims that a heretical group known as the
Ebionites based their beliefs on the Gospel of Matthew that they
called “According to the Hebrews,” written in Hebrew but
falsified and mutilated.
10D.A.
Carson, “Christological Ambiguities in the Gospel of Matthew,”
Christ the Lord, (Leicester:
IVP, 1982), 97-114.
11D.A.
Carson, New Testament, 150.
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